Posted by
NateChurch on
4/14/2010 9:16 AM |
Comments (2)
I filled out my census data recently and I am more than a little disturbed. In fact the more I think about it, the more confused I have become. Article 2 of the constitution states:
[An] Enumeration shall be made within three Years after the first Meeting of the Congress of the United States, and within every subsequent Term of ten Years, in such Manner as they shall by Law direct.
So the idea is to get a count of the people. This makes sense to me for a lot of reasons. If the idea is to get a count of the people, then why ask race, ethnicity or whether or not you have a mortgage? I can only assume this is for an understanding of the services provided. In truth, citizenship status has a larger effect on government services than race or ethnicity should, and hopefully more than your homeownership status.
So originally it was important to note the color and state of freedom(ie slave or indentured servant) in order to determine how you are represented in Congress. Thanks to the 14th ammendment, it doesn't matter any more. It has never legally mattered what ethnicity you are. So why are they asking?
They are also not allowed to discriminate based on homeownership. The law states that you can vote whether or not you own land. Does it matter if I own that land outright? It shouldn't.
The one thing that does matter, and is suprisingly absent, is citizenship status. The Census's main purpose is to determine representation in Congress. So if we are determining representation based on a census that doesn't differentiate between citizens and not, doesn't this mean that states with a high number of people that aren't citizens will get a greater representation in Congress even though those they are representing is lower than stated?
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